Scientific Advancement in the 20th Century Essay

Logical Advancement in the twentieth Century - Essay Example Rather than breaking down the issue on logical premise, they have clung to their old belief systems with a pragmatic acquiescence to the materialistic qualities stylish. Indeed, even the torchbearers, the purported intelligent people and current researchers of any religion profess to be side by side with the cutting edge logical idea have yielded to the attack of present day sciences and in mystery profundities of their souls feel apprehensive how to protect their position. They are accomplishing a larger number of damages than great by guarding their post with antiquated weapons. Like the instance of William James in his Assortments of Religious Experience: A Study in Human Nature composed: Disappointment, at that point, disappointment! So the world stamps us every step of the way. We throw it with our botches, our wrongdoings, our lost chances, with all the commemorations of our insufficiency to our employment. What's more, with what an accursing accentuation does it at that point smudge us out! No simple fine, no unimportant expression of remorse or formal reparation, will fulfill the world's requests, yet every pound of tissue demanded is doused with all its blood. The subtlest types of enduring known to man are associated with the harmful mortifications coincidental to these outcomes. What's more, they are urgent human encounters. A procedure so pervasive and everlasting is obviously an indispensable piece of life. 'There is for sure one component in human predetermination,' Robert Louis Stevenson composes, 'that not visual deficiency itself can dispute. Whatever else we are planned to do, we are not proposed to succeed; disappointment is the destiny assigned.' And our inclination being in this manner established in disappointment, is anyone shocked that scholars ought to have held it to be fundamental, and believed that just through the individual experience of mortification which it causes the more profound feeling of life's noteworthiness is reached (Varieties, p. 138) The primary explanation of this tumble to shame and scorn, is the author's detachment towards logical orders. It has put among the tail-enders on the planet. An inside and out request of mankind's history uncovers that our progenitors dispersed idea and reasoning to the entire world and established various logical controls. Had our progenitors not practiced their pioneer work in the field of experimental sciences, the contemporary logical controls would never have formed into their current status. They unfolded in the expressions of William James and others1 with astuteness on the Western musings and suffocated in murk and haziness of numbness. This way of thinking plentifully fled on our enlightening heredity. Also, we saved everything stupidly. The science is progressing significantly. As appeared in the William work, he was appropriately glad for his boss developmental status among the comity of countries. As he keep poor people and the denied needy and repressed, he likewise planned to see different religions under their enslaving authority. His philosophical idea and human progress is eating up land separations and the world spread more than a great many miles has been diminished to Global town. Inferable from logical advancement, deserts are being changed into knolls and rich fields. The mineral riches is attracted to one feet. Logical information has empowered to bring all the normal sources under human control and utilization. This is, nonetheless, grievous to take note of that his logical methodologies are resolvedly bowed after keeping the retrogressive countries reliant and curbed. In this respects, the minorities are very much characterized target. Like

Essays from 52 to Social Media Versus Cyber Bullying

Articles from 52 to Social Media Versus Cyber Bullying

Willkie, Wendell Lewis

Willkie, Wendell Lewis Willkie, Wendell Lewis, 1892â€"1944, American industrialist and political leader, b. Elwood, Ind. He practiced law in Ohio (1914â€"23) and in New York (1923â€"33) before he became president (1933) of the Commonwealth and Southern Corp., a giant utility holding company. Although a Democrat, Willkie became a leading spokesman of business interests opposed to the New Deal. He finally enrolled as a Republican in 1940 and in that year was nominated by the Republican party for the presidency. In his campaign he endorsed President Franklin Delano Roosevelt's foreign policy but attacked the New Deal at home. Although defeated in the election, he polled more than 22 million votes (the largest popular vote received by a defeated candidate up to that time). He later (1941â€"42) visited England, the Middle East, the Soviet Union, and China as the President's personal representative. He led the fight (1942â€"44) to liberalize the Republican party, mainly attacking isolationism. He wrote One Wor ld (1943) and An American Program (1944). See biographies by W. Severn (1967) and S. Neal (1984); study by W. Moscow (1968). The Columbia Electronic Encyclopedia, 6th ed. Copyright © 2012, Columbia University Press. All rights reserved. See more Encyclopedia articles on: U.S. History: Biographies

Jeanette Rankin Quotes

Jeannette Rankin was the first woman elected to Congress, and also the only member of the House of Representatives to vote no to U.S. entry into both World War I and World War II. She worked for womens suffrage and for peace. Selected Jeannette Rankin Quotations You can no more win a war than you can win an earthquake. I want to stand by my country, but I cannot vote for war. I vote no. (Congressional speech, 1917) As a woman, I cant go to war, and I refuse to send anyone else. (Congressional speech, 1941) Killing more people wont help matters. (1941, after Pearl Harbor) There can be no compromise with war; it cannot be reformed or controlled; cannot be disciplined into decency or codified into common sense; for war is the slaughter of human beings, temporarily regarded as enemies, on as large a scale as possible. (1929) It is unconscionable that 10,000 boys have died in Vietnam...If 10,000 American women had mind enough they could end the war, if they were committed to the task, even if it meant going to jail. (1967) If I had my life to live over, I would do it all again, but this time I would be nastier. Men and women are like right and left hands; it doesnt make sense not to use both. Were half the people; we should be half the Congress. Small use it will be to save democracy for the race if we cannot save the race for democracy. What one decides to do in crisis depends on ones philosophy of life, and that philosophy cannot be changed by an incident. If one hasnt any philosophy in crises, others make the decision. The individual woman is required...a thousand times a day to choose either to accept her appointed role and thereby rescue her good disposition out of the wreckage of her self-respect, or else follow an independent line of behavior and rescue her self-respect out of the wreckage of her good disposition. You take people as far as they will go, not as far as you would like them to go.

Definition and Examples of Praeteritio in Rhetoric

The Outsiders Free Essays

The Outsiders by S. E Hinton, the author argues that heroism defines a person by their actions not by their background, history, or looks. The events at the church, the incidents that happened before the church and the aftermath all show the changes that happened over time that would eventually negate Ponyboys history and background and regard him as a hero. We will write a custom essay sample on The Outsiders or any similar topic only for you Order Now There are different points of heroism in the story and different forms of eroism in the story but for now we are going to look at the most important three, Cherry acting as a spy, Ponyboy rescuing the kids and what he was defined by before he was a hero. Ponyboy is very much defined as a hero after the events that happened at the church in which he rescued all those kids from death by grabbing them out of the burning church. He did out of courage and kindness and was praised as a hero for it. â€Å"Mrs. O’briant and I think you were sent straight from heaven. Or are you Just professional heroes or something? Sent from heaven? Had he gotten a good look at Dallas? â€Å"No were greasers† I said. I was too worried and scared to appreciate the fact that he was trying to be funny. mfou’re what? † â€Å"Greasers you know like hoods, ID’s. Johnny is wanted for murder, and Dallas has a record with the fuzz a mile long. â€Å"(95). The quote present here relates to the theme and explains the ambulance driver overlooking his past and still appreciating him as a hero. The author is putting emphasis on the heroism in the quote and that no matter what background heroes ome from, they are looked upon for their actions and the same applied for Ponyboy and what he did for those kids. The reason that he was looked upon as a hero was because of his actions, but what was he defined as before the church? He was a greaser, Just your average every day greaser who was looked upon as a hood, a thief, and Juvenile delinquent to society. â€Å"It was my pride. It was long and silky, Just like sodas only a little bit redder. Our hair was tuff – we didn’t have to use much grease on it. Our hair labeled us greasers too – it was our trademark. The one thing we were proud of. Maybe we couldn’t corvairs or madras shirts, but we could have hair. † Ponyboys pride was his hair and that’s what he considered himself to be defined by. It was a painful change for him to make when he had to cut it off. When Johnny told ponyboy that he is going to cut their hair ponyboy replied by stating the previous quote. Ponyboy could have been defined as a hero before the events at the church in a different way and from a different perspective. He could be a hero in Johnnys eyes or sticking with him ever since he killed the Socs Bob to him lying in his death bed. He is a hero for standing by his friends through the good and the bad. Although Ponyboy is the most notable hero in the story there are others who did other things such as Cherry acting as a spy for the Greases and giving them info. In the end all of the different stories of heroism in the story all relate back to the main theme heroism is defined by your actions not by your background, history, or looks. The Outsiders By Pancakewaffe How to cite The Outsiders, Papers

Information Systems Today free essay sample

It is limited to transactions between businesses and consumers. C) Electronic commerce between businesses and their employees is not possible. D) All forms of electronic commerce involve business firms. E) Consumer-to-consumer electronic commerce is a complete reversal of the traditional business-to-consumer electronic commerce. 3) Which of the following is an example of business-to-consumer electronic commerce? A) Brenda files her income tax online. B) A manufacturer conducts business over the Web with its retailers. C) Juan buys Kevins guitar on eBay. com. D) Reuben buys a shoe on Yebhi. om. E) Sandra, an employee, uses the Web to make a change her health benefits. 4) Which of the following is an example of consumer-to-consumer electronic commerce? A) Niobi makes an online deposit of $5,000 into her friend Carlas account because she needs financial help. B) Heath buys a gift for Vannessa from Amazon. com. C) Blanco, a manufacturer, conducts business over the Web with its retailers. D) Ted files his income tax online. E) Marty buys Lobsangs mountaineering equipment from eBay. com 5) Ben buys an Olympus E-PL2 from Sony which starts malfunctioning. When he opts for an exchange, the customer representative says that an exchange or repair is not possible because the damage was of a physical nature and not covered under warranty. Which of the following consequences, if true, would be an example of consumer-to-consumer electronic commerce? A) Ben sells the Olympus E-PL2 to Balvinder Singh in India through eBay. com. B) Ben files an online suit against Sony. C) Ben files a complaint on Sonys Web site asking for an escalation. D) Ben buys a Canon G 12. E) Ben sells the Olympus E-PL2 to the worlds largest used camera dealer KEH. om. 6) Which of the following is a result of global information dissemination? A) Firms link Web sites to corporate databases to provide real-time access to personalized information. B) Firms tailor their products and services to meet a customers particular needs on a large scale. C) Firms market their products and services over vast distances. D) Firms provide immediate communication and feedback to and from customers. E) Firms provide ways for clients and firms to conduct business online without human assistance. 7) Which of the following actions explains mass customization? A) Firms tailor their products and services to meet a customers particular needs on a large scale. B) Firms provide immediate communication and feedback to and from customers. C) Firms provide ways for clients and firms to conduct business online without human assistance. D) Firms market their products and services over vast distances. E) Firms link Web sites to corporate databases to provide real-time access to personalized information. 8) Which of the following is an advantage of using interactive communication via the Web? A) reduced transaction costs B) increased customer loyalty C) enhanced operational efficiency D) reduced brand dilution E) decreased cannibalization 9) The phenomenon of cutting out the middleman and reaching customers more directly and efficiently is known as ________. A) gentrification B) demutualization C) reintermediation D) mutualization E) disintermediation 10) Which of the following is an example disintermediation? A) Land Rover markets most of its four-wheel drives in high altitude regions where vehicles require more power. B) Dunkin Donuts expanded its menu beyond breakfasts by adding hearty snacks that substitute for meals, which consists of items like Dunkin Dawgs, hot dogs wrapped in dough. C) Gatorade Thirst Quencher is a market leader in sports drinks. It is now planning to market its drinks to working women in urban areas. D) OakTeak, a furniture manufacturing firm, started selling directly to its customers after it experienced a dip in sales due to channel conflicts between retailers. E) A luxury car company creates a hybrid line of automobiles for consumers who are concerned about the environment. 11) ________ refers to the design of business models that reintroduce middlemen in order to reduce the challenges brought on by dealing directly with customers. A) Reintermediation B) Demutualization C) Gentrification D) Disintermediation E) Mutualization 12) Which of the following is an example of reintermediation? A) The black Centurian card is issued by invitation only to customers who spend more than $250,000 a year on other American Express cards. B) PG acquires the list of parents-to-be and showers them with samples of Pampers and other baby products to capture a share of their future purchases. C) Kambo, a fashion apparel company that deals directly with customers to sell its products, added retailers to its supply chain to cater to its target audience in remote geographic locations. D) OakTeak, a furniture manufacturing firm, started selling directly to its customers after it experienced a dip in sales due to channel conflicts between retailers. E) Dunkin Donuts expanded its menu beyond breakfasts by adding hearty snacks that substitute for meals, which consists of items like Dunkin Dawgs, hot dogs wrapped in dough. D) These firms only conduct business electronically in cyberspace. E) These firms do not have physical store locations. 17) Which of the following firms would most likely pursue the brick-and-mortar strategy? A) KEH. com is a used camera dealer that buys and sells cameras across the globe. B) Castros is a watch manufacturing firm known for its effective mass customization. C) SmartInv is a brokerage firm that allows its customers to personalize their portfolios. D) BestBaker is a local bakery store in Bantam, Connecticut and caters exclusively to its residents. E) Nebo, a computer manufacturer, has pursued disintermediation and sells directly to customers. 18) Which of the following statements is true about firms pursuing a click-and-mortar business strategy? A) These firms learn how to fully maximize commercial opportunities in both domains. B) These firms can often compete more effectively on price. C) These firms tend to be highly adept with technology and can innovate very rapidly as new technologies become available. D) Customers of these firms find it difficult to return a product in case of damages. E) These firms can reduce prices to rock-bottom levels, although a relatively small firm may not sell enough products. 19) EZBiz, the brainchild of three college friends, is a startup venture which plans to produce and market sports gear. They are currently trying to decide between a brick-and-click strategy and a click-only strategy. Which of the following, if true, would most undermine the decision to adopt a click-only strategy? A) The company has limited access to funds and is looking to keep its costs low. B) The public is wary of sharing confidential information after a recent spate of credit card scandals. C) A competitor is facing severe backlash after inadvertently releasing sensitive data into the public domain. D) Several companies who have switched from brick-and-mortar strategy to a click-only are experiencing severe channel conflicts. E) Some click-only companies have been unable to achieve economies of scale and subsequently are unable to offer lower prices. 20) EZBiz, the brainchild of three college friends, is a startup venture which plans to produce sports gear. They are currently trying to decide between a brick-and-click strategy and a click-only strategy. Which of the following, if true, would most support the decision to adopt a click-only strategy? A) E-commerce places firms on a global platform, in direct competition with the best in the business. B) Retailers have a preference for established brands that can pay good margins. C) Research suggests that some customers prefer online shopping because of the convenience it offers. D) Product trials and demonstrations are an essential part of the consumer buying process. E) Cyber laws are yet to reach the level of sophistication required to facilitate safe online transactions. 1) Which of the following statements is true about the revenue model? A) It emphasizes the utility that the product/service has to offer to customers. B) It analyzes the existing players in the market and the nature of the competition. C) It describes the promotion plan of the product/service. D) It describes how the firm will produce a superior return on invested capital. E) It analyzes the background and experie nce of the company leadership. 22) Which of the following questions should a manager consider while analyzing the value proposition component of the business model? A) How much are you selling the product for? B) How fierce is the competition? C) How do you plan to let your potential customers know about your product/service? D) Can the leaders of the organization get the job done? E) Why do customers need your product/service? 23) While preparing a business model, a manager considers the question, How do you plan to let your potential customers know about your product/service? Which of the following components of the businessing model is he/she considering? A) Revenue model B) Management team C) Marketing strategy D) Value proposition E) Competitive environment 24) Paying businesses that bring or refer customers to another business is known as ________. A) affiliate marketing B) subscription marketing C) viral marketing D) stealth marketing E) buzz marketing 25) A collection of companies and processes are involved in moving a product from the suppliers of raw materials, to the suppliers of intermediate components, to final production, and ultimately, to the customer; these companies are collectively referred to as ________. A) customer management B) product lifecycle C) enterprise resource management D) supply chain E) market entry 26) Prior to the introduction of the Internet and Web, the secure communication of proprietary information in business-to-business electronic commerce was facilitated using ________. A) enterprise resource planning B) electronic data interchange C) cloud computing D) supply chain management E) executive information system 27) Which of the following statements is true about the extranet? A) It restricts the companys information from going on the Web. B) It can be accessed only by employees within an organization. C) It contains company related information which all the employees of an organization can access. D) It enables two or more firms to use the Internet to do business together. E) It requires large expenditures to train users on the technologies. 28) Web-based technologies are cross platform, meaning that disparate computing systems can communicate with each other provided that ________. A) the computing systems have been manufactured by the same company B) the computing system manufacturing companies are business partners C) they are located in the same country D) standard Web protocols have been implemented E) the computing system manufacturing companies allow it 29) Companies use ________ to secure proprietary information stored within the corporate local area network and/or wide area network so that the information can be viewed only by authorized users. A) firewalls B) phishing C) rootkits D) bots E) pharming 30) Organizations primarily use extranets to ________. A) conduct market research B) manage their supply chains C) identify their target market D) control brand dilution E) manage public relations 1) In the context of B2B supply chain management, ________ can be defined as access points through which a business partner accesses secured, proprietary information from an organization. A) bots B) forums C) portals D) rootkits E) hosts 32) ________ can provide substantial productivity gains and cost savings by creating a single point of access where the company can conduct business with any number of business partners. A) Rootkits B) Ph arming C) Bots D) Phishing E) Portals 33) ________ automate the business processes involved in selling products from a single supplier to multiple buyers. A) Supplier portals B) Reference portals C) Customer portals D) Procurement portals E) Sourcing portals 34) ________ are designed to automate the business processes that occur before, during, and after sales have been transacted between a supplier and multiple customers. A) Sourcing portals B) Reference portals C) Supplier portals D) Customer portals E) Procurement portals 35) ________ are set up as B2B Web sites that provide custom-tailored offers or specific deals based on sales volume. A) Sourcing portals B) Customer portals C) Procurement portals D) Reference portals E) Supplier portals 6) What is the difference between customer and supplier portals and business-to-business (B2B) marketplaces? A) Unlike customer and supplier portals, B2B marketplaces cannot be classified as extranets. B) Unlike customer and supplier portals, B2B marketplaces are secured by firewalls. C) Unlike customer and supplier portals, B2B marketplaces only serve vertical markets. D) Unlike customer and supp lier portals, B2B marketplaces are associated with a particular buyer or supplier who deals with multiple business partners. E) Unlike customer and supplier portals, B2B marketplaces allow many buyers and many sellers to come together. 7) Markets comprised of firms operating within a certain industry sector are known as ________ markets. A) vertical B) parallel C) horizontal D) stipulated E) focused 38) Which of the following statements is true about B2B and B2C payments? A) Most B2B payments are made through credit cards. B) Most B2C payments are made by checks. C) Most B2B payments are made through electronic payment services. D) Most B2B payments are made by cash. E) Most B2B payments are made by checks. 39) Credit cards and electronic payment services are not used for large B2B transactions because of ________. A) the risks associated with these services B) the complications arising out of these transactions C) preset spending limits D) the resulting decrease in working capital E) the expenses associated with these services 40) Organizations implement intranets to support ________ electronic commerce. A) business-to-business B) business-to-consumer C) business-to-government D) business-to-employee E) consumer-to-business 41) Intranets mostly affect the ________ of an organization. A) suppliers B) employees C) customers D) retailers E) advertisers 2) ________ is used to facilitate the secured transmission of proprietary information within an organization. A) Intranet B) Transnet C) Ethernet D) Extranet E) Telnet 43) Which of the following distinguishes an intranet from an extranet? A) An intranet looks and acts just like a publicly accessible Web site. B) An intranet uses the same hardware as a publicly accessible Web site. C) Users access their companys intranet using their Web browser. D) An intranet uses the same networking technologies as a publicly accessible Web site. E) In its simplest form, intranet communications do not travel across the Internet. 44) ________ are temporary work groups with a finite task and life cycle. A) Intensive forces B) Cross functional teams C) Task forces D) Staff committees E) Self directed work teams 45) The term ________ refers to a class of software that enables people to work together more effectively. A) malware B) groupware C) freeware D) webware E) pestware 46) Which of the following is an asynchronous groupware tool? A) shared whiteboard B) online chat C) intranet D) electronic meeting support system E) video communication system 47) One of the benefits of groupware is its parallelism. Which of the following statements best explains this sentence? A) It keeps the group on track and helps avoid costly diversions. B) It can easily incorporate external electronic data and files. C) It enables members to collaborate from different places at different times. D) It automatically records member ideas, comments, and votes. E) It enables many people to speak and listen at the same time. 48) Which of the following is a synchronous groupware tool? A) e-mail B) intranet C) group calendar D) online chat E) automation system 49) Which of the following provides customers with the ability to obtain personalized information by querying corporate databases and other information sources? A) e-filing B) e-integration C) e-information D) e-transaction E) e-tailing 50) The online sales of goods and services is known as ________. A) e-information B) e-integration C) e-tailing D) e-collaboration E) e-filing 51) Which of the following occurs in a reverse pricing system? A) Customers specify the product they are looking for and how much they are willing to pay for it. B) Customers are provided with the product and its price. C) Customers are provided with a product and can decide how much they are willing to pay for it. D) Customers specify the product they are looking for and the company provides the product with a price. E) Customers cannot decide the product but they can decide the price of the products available. 2) How do comparison shopping sites generate revenue? A) by charging a commission on transactions B) by selling their products C) by charging a virtual shelf-space fee to manufacturers D) by increasing the click-count on their site E) by charging distribution fees to consumers 53) The concept of the Long Tail refers to a focus on ________. A) mainstream products B) broad markets C) generic brands D) brand dilution E) niche markets 54) Which of the following is a disadvantage of e-tailing? A) It is limited by physical store and shelf space restrictions. B) It requires additional time for products to be delivered. C) It complicates the process of comparison shopping. D) It restricts companies to effectively compete on price. E) It reduces a companys inventory turnover time. 55) Which of the following explains Web analytics? A) conducting online marketing research to improve product quality B) analyzing Web sites in order to find the best one in its category C) tracking all online purchasers to try and increase their frequency of visit to a particular Web site D) analyzing Web surfers behavior in order to improve Web site performance E) analyzing Web sites in order to find the best online business practices 6) Which of the following is a mechanism for consumer-to-consumer transactions? A) e-tailing B) e-integration C) e-filing D) e-tendering E) e-auctions 57) ________ is a form of e-auction in which the highest bidder wins. A) Reverse auction B) Bartering C) Exchange D) Forward auction E) Request for quote 58) ________ is a form of e-auction where buyers post a request for quote. A) A reverse a uction B) Bartering C) An exchange D) A forward auction E) A request for proposal 59) Which of the following forms of e-auction typically takes place on a business-to-business level? A) reverse auctions B) bartering C) exchanges D) forward auctions E) request for quotes 60) Doug is a frequent visitor of online auction sites. He uses two different accounts to place a low followed by a very high bid on the desired item. This leads other bidders to drop out of the auction. He then retracts the high bid and wins the item at the low bid. This form of e-auction fraud is known as ________. A) shill bidding B) bid luring C) payment fraud D) nonshipment E) bid skimming 61) Which of the following types of e-auction fraud is associated with the sellers failure to ship an item after the payment has been received? A) bid luring B) bid shielding C) nonshipment D) shipping fraud E) payment failure 62) If a companys Web site is listed in the sponsored list of a search engine, the search engine receives revenue on a ________ basis. A) pay-per-click B) pay-per-sale C) click-through D) pay-per-conversion E) click-per-visit 63) Under the ________ pricing model, the firm running the advertisement pays only when a Web surfer actually clicks on the advertisement. A) pay-per-refresh B) pay-per-sale C) pay-per-click D) pay-per-conversion E) click-per-visit 64) Click-through rate reflects ________. A) the ratio of surfers who visited the Web site divided by the number of surfers who clicked on the ad B) the ratio of surfers who click on an ad divided by the number of times it was displayed C) the percentage of visitors who actually perform the marketers desired action D) the ratio of surfers who clicked on the ad divided by the number of people who made the purchase E) the ratio of surfers who visited the Web site divided by the number of people who made a purchase 65) ________ allows individual Web site owners to post companies ads on their pages. A) Bum marketing B) Stealth marketing C) Viral marketing D) Buzz marketing E) Affiliate marketing 66) In a ________, a site hosting an advertisement creates fake clicks in order to get money from the advertiser. A) competitive click fraud B) irate click fraud C) network click fraud D) shill click fraud E) dedicated click fraud 67) MakeYourClick is an online ad agency that is known for its ability to create ads which lure customers to purchase. Brenda, an ex-employee of the firm, was fired from the agency on baseless grounds. An angry Brenda inflates MakeYourClicks online advertising cost by repeatedly clicking on the advertisers link. Brenda has committed ________. A) competitive click fraud B) irate click fraud C) network click fraud D) shill click fraud E) dedicated click fraud 68) ________ is used in order to have small, well-defined tasks performed by a scalable ad hoc workforce of everyday people. A) Nearshoring B) Insourcing C) Offshoring D) Crowdsourcing E) Homesourcing 69) ________ is an example of m-commerce. A) e-auctions B) e-tailing C) e911 D) e-filing E) e-integrating 70) Which of the following is an argument against digital rights management? A) It encourages unauthorized duplication. B) It enables publishers to infringe on existing consumer rights. C) It discourages publishers to control their digital media. D) It inhibits online transactions in the industry. E) It restricts copyright holders to minimize sales losses. 71) E-filing is an example of a ________ tool. A) government-to-citizen B) consumer-to-consumer C) government-to-government D) consumer-to-business E) business-to-business Chapter 5: Enhancing Collaboration Using Web 2. 0 1) Which of the following is a basic concept associated with Web 2. 0? A) shift in users preference from online sites to encyclopedias as sources of unbiased information B) shift in users role from the passive consumer of content to its creator C) shift in users interest from sharing information o finding information D) shift in users lifestyle due to increased purchasing power E) shift in users preference to environment-oriented products 2) Which of the following is a consequence of the use of social software? A) People are using encyclopedias as sources of unbiased information. B) People are using environmentally-friendly products. C) People have increas ed purchasing power. D) People are sharing more personal information. E) People have become passive consumers of content. 3) The use of ________ within a companys boundaries or between a company and its customers or stakeholders is referred to as Enterprise 2. . A) Web 1. 0 techniques and intranet B) extranet and intranet C) Web 2. 0 techniques and social software D) extranet and Web 1. 0 techniques E) social software and extranet 4) Which of the following statements is true about Web 1. 0? A) It helps users share information. B) It helps users find information. C) Users rule these applications. D) Users receive and give recommendations to friends. E) It helps connect ideas and people. 5) A major benefit of social software is the ability to harness the wisdom of crowds, which is also referred to as ________. A) collaborative filtering B) preference elicitation C) creative commons D) consensus democracy E) collective intelligence 6) The concept of ________ is based on the notion that distributed groups of people with a divergent range of information and expertise will be able to outperform the capabilities of individual experts. A) cognitive dissonance B) creative commons C) collective intelligence D) consensus democracy E) preference elicitation 7) Which of the following statements is true about a discussion forum? A) It started out as a novices way of expressing themselves using very simple Web pages. B) It is the process of creating an online text diary made up of chronological entries that comment on everything. C) Rather than trying to produce physical books to sell or use as gifts, users merely want to share stories about their lives or voice their opinions. D) It is dedicated to a specific topic, and users can start new threads. E) It enables a person to voice his/her thoughts through short status updates. 8) Which of the following statements is true about blogs? A) They emulate traditional bulletin boards and allow for threaded discussions between participants. B) They allow individuals to express their thoughts in a one-to-many fashion. C) They are dedicated to specific topics, and users can start new threads. D) They are moderated so that new postings appear only after they have been vetted by a moderator. E) They enable people to voice their thoughts through short status updates. 9) Which of the following Web 2. 0 applications has been classified as the amateurization of journalism? A) blogs B) discussion forums C) social presence tools D) instant messaging E) online chats 10) Keith Norat, the Chief Technology Officer of Kender Internationals, relies on blogs while making decisions. In his words, Blogs are an important part of our purchase decisions. In todays environment, blogs provide diverse information that help us to make good decisions. Which of the following is an underlying assumption? A) Information in blogs is accurate. B) Some of the blogs are not written well. C) Blogs are company sponsored. D) Professional bloggers rely heavily on advertisements to sustain their operations. E) Blogs lead to the amateurization of journalism. 11) Which of the following explains the term blogosphere? A) the movement against blogs B) the amateurization of blogs C) the revolution against microblogging D) the community of all blogs E) the movement against discussion forums 12) Social presence tools are also known as ________ tools. A) social bookmarking B) instant chatting C) microblogging D) videoconferencing E) geotagging 13) Which of the following facilitates real-time written conversations? A) instant messaging B) discussion forums C) status updates D) blogs E) tagging 14) ________ take the concept of real-time communication a step further by allowing people to communicate using avatars. A) Blogging B) Microblogging C) Instant messaging D) Discussion forums E) Virtual worlds 15) Which of the following statements is true about virtual worlds? A) It allows people to communicate using avatars. B) Small firms have not been successful in consumer-oriented virtual worlds. C) It is designed for short status updates. D) It is the process of creating an online text diary made up of chronological entries that comment on everything. E) Large companies have been able to realize the potential of consumer-oriented virtual worlds. 16) The network effect refers to the notion that the value of a network is dependent on ________. A) the speed of the network B) the number of other users C) the knowledge of the users D) the commitment of the users E) the technical expertise of the moderators 17) ________ is a cooperative Web 2. 0 application making use of the network effect. A) Media sharing B) RSS C) Tagging D) Instant messaging E) A discussion forum 18) ________ is the distribution of digital media, such as audio or video files via syndication feeds for playback on digital media players. A) Narrowcasting B) Crowdsourcing C) Blogging D) Netcasting E) Phishing 19) Podcasting is a misnomer because podcasts ________. A) are concerned with the dissemination of information to a narrow audience B) cannot be played on Apples iPods C) are not related to distribution of digital media for digital devices D) are concerned with outsourcing tasks to a large group of people or community E) can be played on a variety of devices in addition to Apples iPods 20) Social bookmarking allows users to share Internet bookmarks and to create categorization systems. These categorization systems are referred to as ________. A) tag clouds B) podcasts C) folksonomies D) geospatial metadata E) microblogs 21) Which of the following statements is true about social bookmarking? A) It is the distribution of digital media. B) It allows netcasters to publish and push current shows to the watchers/listeners. C) It allows people to communicate using avatars. D) It allows users to create folksonomies. E) It allows users to post short status updates. 22) ________ is the creation of a categorization system by users. A) Social cataloging B) Podcasting C) Social blogging D) Netcasting E) Crowdsourcing 23) ________ refers to manually adding metadata to media or other content. A) Phishing B) Tagging C) Crowdsourcing D) Podcasting E) Netcasting 24) Which of the following statements is true about tagging? A) It is the rocess of creating a categorization systems by users. B) It is the process of distributing digital media for playback on digital media players. C) It is the process of adding metadata to pieces of information. D) It is the process of of creating avatars and syndication feeds. E) It is the process of creating an online text diary. 25) ________ refer(s) to a way of visualizing user generated tags or c ontent on a site. A) Crowdsourcing B) Tag clouds C) Phishing D) Podcasting E) Pharming 26) Which of the following is one of the uses of geotagging? A) to use avatars while chatting online B) to create categorization systems for social cataloging C) to know the location of a person sending out a breaking news update D) to create folksonomies for social bookmarking E) to use syndicate feeds while sharing media 27) Which of the following is an example of synchronous communication? A) online reviews B) work flow automation systems C) intranets D) videoconferencing E) collaborative writing tools 28) Which of the following is an example of asynchronous communication? A) group calendars B) videoconferencing C) online chatting D) shared whiteboards E) electronic meeting support system 29) Which of following factors differentiates asynchronous communication from ynchronous communication? A) language B) network speed C) coordination in time D) expertise E) distance 30) In todays business environment, project teams comprise highly specialized members, many of whom are not colocated. ________ are comprised of members from different geographic areas. A) Work groups B) Virtual teams C) Work teams D) Task forces E) Command groups 31) Which of the following is an electronic communication tool that allows users to files, documents, and pictures to each other and share information? A) e-mail B) instant messaging C) application sharing D) electronic calendars E) knowledge management systems 2) Which of the following is an electronic conferencing tool that facilitates information sharing and rich interactions between users? A) e-mail B) wikis C) blogs D) instant messaging E) online document systems 33) Which of the following is a collaboration management tool that is used to facilitate virtual or colocated meetings ? A) Internet forums B) videoconferencing C) wikis D) fax E) intranets 34) Web-based collaboration tools ________. A) allow for easy transferability from one person to another B) have well-documented procedures for system complexities C) reduce the risk of exposing sensitive corporate data D) require users to frequently upgrade their software E) are complex and time-consuming to learn 35) Which of the following statements is true about Gmail? A) It is an enterprise-level collaboration tool that allows users to create group Web sites and share team information. B) It allows users to select a custom domain name for an additional fee. C) It allows users to share events and subscribe to public calendars for new events. D) It is an instant messaging client. E) It is an online office suite comprised of a spreadsheet application, a word processor, and a presentation application. 6) Which of the following Google Apps is an instant messaging client? A) Gmail B) Google Calendar C) Google Talk D) Google Sites E) Google Docs 37) ________ is an online office suite comprised of a spreadsheet application, a word processor, and a presentation application. A) Gmail B) Google Talk C) Google Sites D) Google Calendar E) Google Docs 38) Which of the following statements is true about Googl e Sites? A) It is an enterprise-level collaboration tool that allows users to create group Web sites and share team information. B) It allows users to select a custom domain name for an additional fee. C) It allows users to share events and subscribe to public calendars for new events. D) It is an instant messaging client. E) It is an online office suite comprised of a spreadsheet application, a word processor, and a presentation application. 39) A(n) ________ system allows users to publish, edit, version track, and retrieve digital information. A) social presence B) collective intelligence C) application sharing D) content management E) peer production 40) Which of the following statements is true about content management systems? A) It is the creation of goods or services by self-organizing communities. B) The creation of the goods or services is dependent on the incremental contributions of the participants. C) It allows the assignment of different roles for different users. D) Anyone can help in producing or improving the final outcome. E) It is a family of syndication feeds used to publish the most current blogs, podcasts, videos, and news stories. 41) Which of the following is the responsibility of an administrator in a content management system? A) editing the content into a final form B) managing account access levels to the digital information C) sharing team information D) publishing new information E) creating database applications 42) ________ is the creation of goods or services by self-organizing communities. A) Peer production B) A folksonomy C) Creative commons D) Groupware E) Social software 43) Which of the following statements is true about peer production? A) The creator is responsible for publishing new information. B) Only editors have the right to develop new content. C) It is also known as enterprise content systems. D) Anyone can help in producing or improving the final outcome. E) The guest is a person who can only view the digital information. 44) Which of the following occurs during wiki wars? A) editors do not agree with the creators of the content B) participants debate on a particular topic before creation C) administrators refuse to publish a creators content D) guests edit the creators content without permission E) contributors continuously edit or delete each others posts 45) ________ is a phenomenon where companies use everyday people as a cheap labor force. A) Nearshoring B) Phishing C) Crowdsourcing D) Narrowcasting E) Pharming 46) ________ enables people to work in more flexible ways on a variety of Internet-related projects. A) E-filing B) E-auction C) E-tailing D) E-lancing E) E-timing 47) ________ sites create social online communities where individuals with a broad and diverse set of interests meet and collaborate. A) Crowdsourcing B) Social cataloging C) Social networking D) Social bookmarking E) Media sharing 48) Which of the following statements is true about viral marketing? A) It uses the network effect to increase brand awareness. B) It uses everyday people as a cheap labor force. C) It is the dissemination of information to a narrow audience. D) It enables people to work in more flexible ways on a variety of Internet-related projects. E) It is used to market a product without the audience realizing it. 49) Which of the following is a critical factor in the success of a viral marketing campaign? A) restricting access to viral content B) doing what the audience expects C) making sequels D) restricting easy distribution E) distributing products for free 50) ________ attempts to provide relevant search results by including content from blogs and microblogging services. A) Social search B) OpenSearch C) Enterprise search D) Metasearch E) Netsearch 51) Which of the following statements is true about Real Simple Syndication (RSS)? A) It is used to increase brand awareness through the network effect. B) It is used to disseminate information to a narrow audience. C) It is used to market the product without the audience realizing it. D) It is used to enable people to work in more flexible ways on a variety of Internet-related projects. E) It is used to publish the most current blogs, podcasts, videos, and news stories. 52) For companies operating in the digital world, online collaboration with suppliers, business partners, and customers is crucial to being successful. ________ allow(s) data to be accessed without intimate knowledge of other rganizations systems, enabling machine-to-machine interaction over the Internet. A) Web services B) Widgets C) RSS feeds D) Social search E) Peer production 53) Android is a Web service hosted by Google to ________. A) create customized search features B) build mobile phone applications C) manage personal calendars D) integrate Googles mapping system into Web sites E) allow us ers to build applications that work with multiple social communities 54) Which of the following statements is true about widgets? A) They can be placed on a desktop, but cannot be integrated into a Web page. B) They can integrate two or more Web services. C) They are created by the integration of Web services and mashups. D) They are small interactive tools used for a single purpose. E) They can be integrated into a Web page, but cannot be placed on a desktop. 55) Together, Web services and widgets enable the creation of ________. A) protocols B) mashups C) codecs D) folksonomies E) tag clouds 56) Which of the following statements is true about a mashup? A) It is a small interactive tool used for a single purpose. B) It is used to increase brand awareness through the network effect. C) It is the process of allowing companies to use everyday people as a cheap labor force. D) It is used to disseminate information to a narrow audience. E) It is an application or a Web site that integrates one or more Web services. 57) Which of the following is a reason for the development of semantic Web? A) Web pages can be understood by people but not by computers. B) Users should be able to use any device in any network for any service. C) Users give a lot of unnecessary personal information to social networking sites. D) Widgets cannot be integrated into Web pages. E) Users are skeptical while making purchases online due to the fear of getting cheated. 58) Which of the followings is NOT true about an Enterprise 2. strategy? A) Web 2. 0 sites base their success on user-driven self-expression. B) Enterprise 2. 0 applications are not suited to traditional top-down organizational structures. C) Enterprise 2. 0 applications should be driven by a specific usage context. D) Organization-wide Enterprise 2. 0 implementations typically need changes in terms of organizational culture. E) Within organizations, the critical mass needed for an Enterprise 2. 0 application is often easily achieved. 59) Enterprise 2. 0 is likely to fail if ________. A) an organizations workforce is dominated by baby boomers B) an organization has a flat organizational hierarchy C) an organization emphasizes open communication D) an organizations workforce is dominated by millennials E) it is integrated well with an organizations existing information systems infrastructure Technology Briefing: Foundations of Information Systems Infrastructure Networks, the Internet, and Databases 68) ________ is a computer networking model in which multiple types of computers are networked together to share data and services. A) Centralized computing B) Mainframe computing C) Task computing D) Distributed computing E) Serial computing 9) A(n) ________ is a computer network that spans a relatively small area, allowing all computer users to connect with each other to share data and peripheral devices, such as printers. A) enterprise network B) wide area network C) campus area network D) local area network E) value-added network 70) A(n) ________ is a wide area network connecting disparate networks of a single organization into a single network. A) value-added network B) global network C) enterprise network D) local area network E) personal area network 71) ________ are private, third-party-managed medium-speed WANs that are shared by multiple organizations. A) Value-added networks B) Enterprise networks C) Global networks D) Local area networks E) Personal area networks 72) A(n) ________ is an emerging technology that uses wireless communication to exchange data between computing devices using short-range radio communication, typically within an area of 10 meters. A) value-added network B) local area network C) personal area network D) enterprise network E) campus area network 73) ________ are network services that include the storing, accessing, and delivering of text, binary, graphic, and digitized video and audio data across a network. A) Print services B) File services C) Message services D) Application services E) Software services 74) The high-speed central networks to which many smaller networks can be connected are known as ________. A) last-mile networks B) ISPs C) Internet exchange points D) private branch exchanges E) backbones 75) Which of the following wireless communication technologies uses high-frequency light waves to transmit data on an unobstructed path between nodes—computers or some other device such as a printer—on a network at a distance of up to 24. 4 meters? A) Bluetooth B) wireless LAN C) high-frequency radio D) infrared line of sight E) microwaves WLANs based on a family of standards called 802. 11 are also referred to as ________. A) Bluetooth B) wireless fidelity C) ethernet D) personal area networks E) infrared line of sight 77) Which of the following is a characteristic of terrestrial microwave communication? A) high attenuation B) speeds up to 16 Mbps C) low expense D) high susceptibility to eavesdropping E) low electromagnetic interference 78) ________ is the set of rules that governs how a given node or workstation gains access to the network to send or receive data. A) Media access control B) Logical link control C) Hypertext transfer protocol D) File transfer protocol E) Internet control message protocol 79) ________ is a commonly used method of random access control, in which each workstation listens to traffic on the transmission medium (either wired or wireless) to determine whether a message is being transmitted. A) Code division multiple access B) Carrier sense multiple access C) Hybrid coordination function D) Group packet radio service E) Point coordination function 80) In a(n) ________ network all nodes or workstations are connected to a central hub, or concentrator, through which all messages pass. A) ring B) bus C) star D) mesh E) tree 81) Which of the following network topologies is capable of covering the largest distance? A) star network B) bus network C) ring network D) mesh network E) tree network 82) Which of the following statements is true of a bus network topology? A) A bus network has the most complex wiring layout. B) Extending a bus network is more difficult to achieve than it is for other topologies. C) A bus network topology enables all network nodes to receive the same message through the network cable at the same time. D) The configuration of bus networks facilitates easy diagnosis and isolation of network faults. E) In a bus network, every computer and device is connected to every other computer and device. 83) As per the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, which of the following layers defines the way data is formatted, converted, and encoded? A) application layer B) transport layer C) presentation layer D) data link layer E) session layer 84) According to the OSI model, the ________ layer defines the protocols for structuring messages. A) physical B) session C) transport D) data link E) network 5) According tot he OSI model, the physical layer defines ________. A) the protocols for data routing to ensure that data arrives at the correct destination B) the way data is formatted, converted, and encoded C) the mechanism for communicating with the transmission media and interface hardware D) the way that application programs such as electronic mail interact with the network E) the protocols fo r structuring messages 86) A ________ is a device that converts digital signals from a computer into analog signals so that telephone lines may be used as a transmission medium to send and receive electronic data. A) modem B) LAN card C) network adapter D) PCI connector E) USB port 87) A ________ is a PC expansion board that plugs into a computer so that it can be connected to a network. A) transceiver B) multiport repeater C) cable router D) network interface card E) modular connector 88) A(n) ________ is a piece of networking hardware that manages multiple access points and can be used to manage transmission power and channel allocation to establish desired coverage throughout a building and minimize interference between individual access points. A) router B) wireless controller C) network switch D) modem E) network interface card 89) Which of the following entities is responsible for managing global and country code top-level domains, as well as global IP number space assignments? A) American Registry for Internet Numbers (ARIN) B) World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) C) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) D) Internet Governance Forum (IGF) E) European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN) 90) Which of the following Internet connectivity technologies enables data to be sent over existing copper telephone lines by sending digital pulses in the high-frequency area of telephone wires? A) integrated services digital network technology B) digital subscriber line technology C) dial-up service technology D) cable modem technology E) fiber to the home technology 91) Computers working as servers on the Internet are known as ________. A) network adapters B) modems C) network switches D) Ethernet hubs E) Internet hosts 92) A(n) ________ is a unique identifier that should be created and used when designing a database for each type of entity, in order to store and retrieve data accurately. A) foreign key B) surrogate key C) primary key D) superkey E) candidate key 93) In which of the following database models does the DBMS view and present entities as two-dimensional tables, with records as rows, and attributes as columns? A) relational database model B) hierarchical database model C) network database model D) object-oriented database model E) semantic database model 94) ________ is a technique to make complex databases more efficient and more easily handled by the DBMS. A) Assertion B) Exception handling C) Normalization D) Model elimination E) Structural induction

Global Warming and Planetary Dangers free essay sample

Pros cons on planetary dangers of warming, focusing on the need for balancing environmental economic needs. There are two arguments over the issue of global warming. One says there may be only mild, if any, increases in global and U.S. temperatures, while another says that scientists who do not recognize the significance and dangers of global warming are funded by the industry. This research examines these two arguments. First, the case for worrying about global warming is offered. Second, the case against getting over-alarmed is defended. Case for Worry The global climate?-considered the average weather, usually over a 30-year time period?-can be influenced by both natural forces and human activities. Climate change refers to any change in climate over time whether due to natural variability or as a result of human activity..

Learning and Cognition

Learning and Cognition Introduction According to Kimble (1961), learning is taken as the process that brings in a relatively permanent alteration in behavior or potentiality in behavior as a result of reinforcement. For leaning to take place there must be a permanent change in the behavior. Therefore learning omits those behavior changes that are not permanent such as sleeping, eating and so on. In addition the term learning also do not consider the permanent changes that result due to maturation as learning process.Advertising We will write a custom essay sample on Learning and Cognition specifically for you for only $16.05 $11/page Learn More Learning and Cognition Whenever learning occurs, it is manifested as a change in behavior. The change though does not result immediately after learning, but occurs after some time span. Since learning cannot be studied directly, learning of behavior change is an important aspect because gives an inference to the process that preside behavio r change and hence making the study of learning possible. Except for B.F. Skinner who considers reinforcement and punishment as the most important aspects of learning behavior, majority of the learning theorist consider that learning compose of a superseding variable between experience and behavior (Olson Hergenhahn, 2009). This helps to differentiate performance and learning where performance exhibit the real learning as a behavior, although learning is regarded to take place before the exhibition of the learned behavior through performance. Thus it should be taken to represent potential for future behavior. Thus in summary, learning can be taken to represent behavior in potential that signify a superseding variable between experience and behavior; that ultimately gets expressed through the tool of performance. Conditioning is one process through which learning takes place. This type of learning was initially formulated by Pavlov and later augmented by Skinner. Conditioning can fu rther be split into two groups. These are classical conditioning and Instrumental conditioning. In the former conditioning, learning occurs when animals master how to associate neutral stimulus with natural stimulus they are familiar with. For instance classical conditioning results when a dog salivates when a man with a lab coat passes. This can happen only if the man that feeds the dog wears a lab coat every time he does it. Therefore the dog learns to associate the lab coat with food. Thus every time it sees a lab coat it associates it with food. On the other hand, the latter conditioning is also known as operant conditioning and it occurs when a behavior that already exists is reinforced in order to increases its chances of reoccurrences (Olson Hergenhahn 2009). Similarly it occurs when an animal masters to act in a certain manner in order to receive an intrinsically rewarding stimulus. This can be inferred by jumping of a trained dolphin from a pool of water so that to get a f ish.Advertising Looking for essay on psychology? Let's see if we can help you! Get your first paper with 15% OFF Learn More This results if the dolphin is given a fish every time it reaps. These forms of learning are very important in the day to day lives since Classical conditioning is used to differentiate between those objects that are essential for survival and those that are not, while on the other hand, operant conditioning is used for avoidance of unwanted objects. Almost every theory of learning includes cognitive association into the general stimulus-response relationship advocated by operant and classical conditioning. The said cognitive association can occur between an occurrence of two stimuli (S-O), depiction of a stimulus and response (S-R) or finally a representation of a response and an outcome (R-O). The most important factor in all these associations is that anticipation of the results acts as the mediator between learning and performance. T herefore the S-R association can result from preconditioning events (Kimble, 1961). For instance introducing of a pairing related stimuli and do away with any reinforcement which will result into the expectation that future representation of one of the stimulus will lead to the occurrence of the other one. On the other hand, reducing the frequency of representation of a set of stimuli will reduce the future expectancy of the representation of the desired stimuli or response. For example when a dog is conditioned that every time it sees a man with a lab coat it gets its food will salivate every moment it sees any man wearing a lab coat. Therefore there is a general expectancy that when the dog sees a man with a lab coat it will definitely salivate since it associates the lab coat with the stimulus it is familiar with food. If this procedure is altered and the dog does not get its food every time it sees a man with a lab coat, its expectation that it will salivate every time it sees a man with a lab coat decreases. Conclusion Behavior change can be regarded as the ultimate result of learning that is represented through the instrument of performance. Classical conditioning and instrumental conditioning are considered as the two forms of learning through which other form of learning can be linked to. It is from this learning paradigm that forms the basis of cognitive association which tries to explain the expectancy of future happenings as a mediating variable that helps to build a framework to enable comprehend cognitive processes so that to assist in. Reference List Kimble, G. (1961). Hilgard, Ernest R. and Marquis, Donald G. Hilgard and Marquis Conditioning and  learning. New York: Appleton-Century-Crofts.Advertising We will write a custom essay sample on Learning and Cognition specifically for you for only $16.05 $11/page Learn More Olson, Mathew., Hergenhahn, B. (2009). An Introduction to Theories of Learning. (Eighth Edition). Ne w York: Prentice Hall.

Strategic Management Assignment Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 2750 words

Strategic Management - Assignment Example Every component of the strategy works together for the development of the organization. In the business scenario, the management formulates the overall strategy, which is to be followed by the smaller units like the different departments of the organization. Evaluating the market and the aspects of the company arrives at the choice of the strategy. There are different tools in assessing the market conditions and the features of the company like the SWOT analysis, PEST analysis, Five Forces, STP etc. These evaluation techniques give a detailed picture of the market conditions and the features of the company. This helps in the formation of the strategy by the management. The main aim of the company is to increase the sales of the company and the strategies underline this notion. After the evaluation of the features of the market and the company, the management selects a strategy that will pertain to the development of the company. (Strategy, n.d.; What is strategy, n.d.; Applied Strate gic Technologies, n.d.; Jenkins, Ambrosini and Collier: 2-4) In this paper, two companies have been taken through which a detailed analysis will be undertaken in the case of the strategic management. The companies in question will be Pepsi and Coca Cola. Pepsi and Coca Cola share a traditional rivalry in the soft drinks market and are the two biggest players in the market. The development of the companies has been possible because of the visions of the management in setting up of the strategies of the companies. Strategy is perhaps the most important functions of the management. The performance of the companies depends on the strategies undertaken by the management to a major extent. As the importance of strategy has been underlined so far, a question rises – What is strategy? Strategy can be comprehensively defined as follows: "Strategy is the direction and scope of an organisation over the long-term: which

Research Methods and Design Assignment 2 - literature Review Paper

Methods and Design Assignment 2 - literature Review - Research Paper Example Brynt & Idey (2001) mentioned that they display more fantasy proneness and greater absorption (as cited in Wilson & Barber, 1981; Barber & Glass, 1962). They also experience greater imaginary involvement (as cited in Hilgard, 1979) and a strong attention focus (as cited in Kumar, Pekala & Cummings, 1996). For measuring individual differences, Braffman & Kirsch (2001), discovered two detriments i.e. â€Å"simple and go/no go reaction times†. Hypnotisability was positively related with simple reaction time and negatively with go/no go reaction time, when non hypnotic suggestibility was statistically controlled. Specific, noteworthy characteristics make some individuals more susceptible to hypnosis than others. For many years, hypnotisability scales are in practise, in both clinical and research settings. A set of standardized suggestions are used to check individuals’ responses, following standardized induction, to know the measure of hypnotic ability they possess. As hypnotisability is a stable construct, identifying its predictors would help to comprehend the individual differences observed in suggestibility (Paulson & Matthews, 2003, p.198). Barber, Spanos and Chaves (1974) proposed that individual differences in ability to respond to hypnosis could be described with the aid of imagination and absorption constructs (Paulson & Matthews, 2003, p.198-199). Absorption is termed as an individual’s characteristic, which encompasses openness, to experience changes in cognitive and emotional, state over a range of circumstances (Milling, Kirsch & Burgess, 2000, p.32). It is the capacity for self altering attention that is considered to be a significant component of hypnotisability (Green & Lynn, 2008, p.156). Highly susceptible individuals, on measures of absorption, are believed to get involved in a variety of imaginative practices (Milling, Kirsh & Burgess, 2000, p.32). Another

Dystonia in the Joint Hypermobility Syndrome

Dystonia in the Joint Hypermobility Syndrome Ehlers-Danlos syndrome first described by Tschernogobow (1896) in Moscow and Ehlers (1900) in Copenhagen is a mostly autosomal inherited genetic disease of collagen synthesis that sensitizes the ensemble of the connective tissue which becomes less resistant and less elastic. These two characteristics explain the symptomatology: fragility of the skin, of the vessels (haemorrhages) and the presence of a diffuse proprioceptive syndrome due to dysfunction of the receptors which are implanted into little or non-reactive connective tissue. Diagnosis of the hypermobile type of EDS is solely clinical as there is to date no genetic maker for the most frequent form of EDS. The rarity of the disease needs to be put into question before the crowd of patients at consultations. Our experience is based on an active database of 2212 patients which all fall under the Villefranche criteria. A great number of signs and symptoms have yet to be attributed to this syndrome. They are, combined with the una wareness of physicians about the syndrome, at the origin of therapeutic errors accompanied by the iatrogenic effects of prejudice towards these patients. This is the case of dystonia which is present in 75% of our cases. Dystonia plays an important part in the functional discomfort which is at the origin of a number of handicap situations. It seems to be related to dysautonomia common amongst the patients, proprioceptive problems and the multiple pains caused by the syndrome. Dystonia treatment with Amantadine and L-Dopa permits to obtain results which go further than the normally associated extra-pyramidal treatment and opens new perspectives on the management of a syndrome that has been particularly difficult to treat. Key-Words : Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS), dystonia, dysautonomia, L-dopa, pains, fatigue. Dystonia in the joint hypermobility syndrome (a.k.a. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, hypermobility type). Introduction Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) recognition went through many vicissitudes since the first outstanding description by Tschernogobow (1) and Ehlers (2) respectively in Moscow in 1896 and in Copenhagen in 1900. EDS genetic grounds have been recognized since 1949 (4) collagens role as early as 1956 (5). EDS was studied in parallel by the rheumatologists (Brighton and Grahame) and the geneticist (Beighton) who are each working mainly on articular hypermobility with different assessment tests. There is perfect similarity between the rheumatologists joint hypermobility syndrome and the geneticists EDS hypermobility type. These two denominations refer in fact to the same illness. However, a great body of clinical manifestations has not yet been assigned to this syndrome. They are, in combination with the physicians usual unawareness of this syndrome, the cause of many diagnostic wavering with their iatrogenic side-effects that harm the patients. This is the case with dystonia. MATERIAL AND METHODS 2,212 patients were diagnosed and followed up in the Ehlers-Danlos consultation in Paris, between 2006 and 2015. They were all examined by the same physician with the same evaluation grid both qualitative and quantitative allowing to rate from 0 to 4 the symptoms subjective severity and objective data from clinical examination. The populations age varies from 2years to 69 years (mean age: 32). 80% are women. Inclusion criteria All the patients in this study met the criteria of the geneticians Villefranche classification (6). On top of the criteria within this classification, we observed a group of 153 patients examined in 2013 with a quotation of severity equal or superior to 2/4 (medium intensity) with clinical manifestations of the following: multiple pains (95%), fatigue (93%), proprioceptive problems (92%), hemorrhages (93%), GERD (72%), bucco-dental manifestations (72%), hyperacousia (75%), diplopia (74%), SOB (76%), dysautonomia: heavy sweating (70%), cold intolerance (74%), a pseudo Raynaud with cold extremities (84%), cognitive problems : attention (79%) and memory (72%). As of date there is no genetic test available for the hypermobile form of EDS. Finding other cases amongst the patient’s family (95%) is a strong diagnostic argument. Dystonia identification Dystonia was diagnosed if a patient suffered from one or several of the following symptoms: Involuntary muscular contractions without movement such as fasciculation on the face, blepharospasm mainly, on the thigh, reminding of a mobile phone vibration in a trouser pocket, Sudden movements such as a fit of the wrist, the shoulders, the legs or wide movements which results in hitting objects or people or throwing off balance the patient for whom they occur in the lower limbs Trembling, jerking, hesitant hand movements Trembling fingers or thumbs in motion or at rest Muscular contractions often described as hardening of muscles, rigidity, constraining movement, or as cramps Lasting contractions in forced flexion of the thumb or fingers, in flexion and adduction of the feet, Writer’s cramp when writing after variable amounts of time, Incessant, repetitive movement in flexion or extension of the foot and knee when sitting with feet on the ground, Repetitive movement of the trunk alternating between flexion and extension at the hip Diffuse tonic crises at the lower limbs with alternating, violent movements worsened by tenting to immobilize them Short contractions of the lower limbs leading to a fall Partial or generalized tonic-clonic movements and the possibility of hematomas facilitated by the fine skin and the fragility of the vessels. These can be confused with seizure activity but the EEG remains normal Restless leg syndrome at night, which sometimes evolves into very violent jerks Bruxism, which we often encounter in EDS patients could be related to dystonia These dystonic contractions provoke luxations of the shoulder, fingers, a hip, knee or the maxilla. They are most commonly of short duration but can prolong over several days, weeks, months or exceptionally years as we have observed in a few cases. Dystonia is associated with the accentuation of other manifestations of the syndrome. Pain often increases to a very intense level in the part of the body where the dystonia occurs. Dysautonomic problems (vasomotor, sweating, tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, freezing and cold intolerance, nausea, sensations of generally feeling unwell, POTS) at which Jaime Bravo (7) attaches fatigue. Pain itself can also provoke dystonia sometimes due to subcutaneous or intramuscular injections, traumatism, or simply during physical exam manoeuvre. It is perceived as painful by these hyperalgesic patients. Dystonia exists in 75% of our patients with the following severity index : 2/4 (39%), 3/4 (29%) and 4/4 (7%). The treatment of dystonia within EDS Our therapeutic approach of EDS (8) centres on the amelioration of the proprioceptive troubles, of the pain as well as the fatigue. Foremost we use proprioceptive shoe inlays and particularly proprioceptive clothing specifically adapted for EDS, derived from the treatment of burn victims and oxygen therapy against fatigue, shortness of breath and migraines. For the last five years we have successfully used Amantadine after the discussion with Pierre Cesaro (neurologist, specialist in the treatment of Parkinson). (9) When it was taken of the market in France we sought to replace it with L-Dopa which we prescribe at a low dosage (62,5 mg q3d –Modopar: 50mg L-Dopa +12,5mg Benserazide hydrochloride) adjusted to the needs of the patient especially in severe cases. We describe here the case of a 54 year old woman, a family medicine physician, who had been diagnosed with EDS-HT. Signs present since childhood worsened at the age of 52: muscular pain, intense fatigue, proprioceptive problems manifesting most importantly with difficulties waling. Signs of dystonia could be observed in the lower limbs. She is very tired with crises of somnolence that disturb her professional life. The fatigue and muscular pain is partially alleviated by wearing proprioceptive shoe inlays, 3 sessions of oxygen therapy (3L/min) 20min/day, baclofen and L-Carnitine. The effects alleviate progressively over the course of 2 months a generalised sensation of muscular rigidity of the legs and face with difficulties in the articulations, muscular twitches increasing in frequency. She started progressively on a treatment with Modopar (62,5mg q3d). The results were spectacular; after 2 weeks she recuperated fluid motion in her legs, the involuntary muscular contractions disappeared, but there was also improvement in her vigilance and in the fatigue. She stopped the Baclofen without forfeiting anything in her muscular state. After 4 months of the treatment with L-Dopa the effects on her vigilance are maintained with the total loss of the hypersomnia. She can cut down her intake of Tramadol extended release threefold. Whereas before she thought about stopping all of her professional activities, she is now able to pursuit her professional life with efficacy. The oxygen therapy is maintained as well as the L-Carnitine for their action on muscles, because c utting down this part of the treatment lead to an increase in muscular pain. Discussion 1 Identifying dystonia as a frequent and evocative manifestation of EDS Dystonia should be looked for in any patient diagnosed with EDS. It even contributes to its diagnosis. On the other hand, when dystonia is present in a patient often associated with psychiatric problems one should think of the possibility of EDS as a diagnosis and inquire about the other evocative signs: diffuse overall pain, fatigue, hypermobility, cutaneous fragility, joint problems, hemorrhages and familial cases. 2 Reflections on the pathophysiology We estimate that the alteration in proprioception plays a large part in the clinical manifestation of EDS. The receptors placed in a more elastic tissue, diminished in its thickness, easily deformed and compressed, having lost their elasticity (with a loss or attenuation of the elastic recoil),which do not or not well (not enough or too much) to solicitations. This is particularly true for the skin, which is the most important organ for the postural proprioception and for movement. This is also very true for the control of muscular activity via neuromuscular connections. This receptor dysfunction is also a plausible explanation for the anarchy within the autonomic nervous system, especially the crises of tachycardia and hypotension due to a loss in reactivity of the carotid sinus receptors implanted in altered collagen. This explanation can be expanded towards the mechanism causing dyspnea at effort, as the mechanoreceptors of the joints do not transmit the proper signals to the resp iratory centers. One of the arguments in favor of this explanation is the positive effect special compressive clothing has on the proprioceptive control of the limbs (less falls, fewer luxation of the shoulder and fingers) and the improvement of the respiratory difficulties when wearing these clothes on the trunk. It is logical to interpret dystonia by way of the same mechanism and the poor information which is received by the specialized area of central nervous system. The positive effect observed by Roland Jaussaud (10) on a patient presenting with permanent, multiple, involuntary movements which completely ceased after starting to wear the special EDS compressive clothing. An association between dystonia and dysautonomia has often been made (11). This corresponds to our observations made in consultation, especially in the instances that our patients came to call â€Å"their EDS crises†. These crises are often accompanied by postural orthostatic hypotension (POTS) which pla ys an important role in the sensation of fatigue. (7,12). They are habitually painful, even very painful. These observations suggest an intricate pathophysiological relationship between dystonia, dysautonomia and pain in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome which become the main therapeutic focus. 3 How to treat dystonia in EDS? The treatment of the proprioceptive problems (clothes and inlays), of the pain (inlays, local treatments to be preferred over the general route), of the fatigue (mostly oxygen therapy) and of the autonomic dysfunction by way of beta-blockers at low dose (13) seems to be a necessary prerequisite to be adjusted towards each patient individually. The specific treatment with anti-Parkinson medications have mostly been followed by their effects included on their effects in grand dystonic crises. The observation of positive effects outside of dystonia bears two questions: Firstly the role of dystonia itself on fatigue by way of less muscular activity and a better automatic control of movement, but also the role of dopamine as a molecule itself in this systemic disease. Conclusions Manifestations of dystonia in EDS is an important adjunct to further diagnosis and treatment, the understanding of its pathophysiology of this complex disease, which is little or poorly diagnosed, altering considerably life quality of the patients suffering from it and a source of many disabling situations. The integration of all the manifestations of dystonia into the symptomatology of EDS enriches the clinic of this syndrome and furthers/advances new therapeutic perspectives in a particularly hard to treat pathology. L-Dopa seems to have positive effects that transcend those researched on dystonia itself.

Ethics and Morality Essay

â€Å"In philosophy we have a problem knowing the origin of right and wrong, there are various theories and ideas but we do not seem to have a definite answer to this question. † By Jamee Ford In life people are brought up in different homes, surrounded by different people and are taught different ways of life. As we grow up we are taught the difference between what is considered right and what is considered wrong, which is based on what is socially acceptable. We learn from a young age how we are expected to behave, the rules we have to abide by given from family and the morals we should have and grow up with. In this society it is difficult to find the origin of right and wrong for there are so many theories and ideas, but yet there is no definite answer. I believe morality comes from us citizens, the law, our feelings and our religion can give a certain indication to how we set our values, but I belive it is an objective fact that what is said to be wrong is wrong and what is said to be right is right. A minority of people believe that morality comes from God. These people have a lot of faith and get their morals and understanding of right and wrong from their belief in god and their bible. For example in the Bible, there are the 10 Commandments, a list of what is acceptable and unacceptable according to God. But what if we don’t believe in god, where would our sense of right and wrong come from? If we can’t change people’s options and feelings on what is right and wrong just by saying that it is acceptable or unacceptable, then why is it okay to say God can. Without god, would their still be morality? Because if god made it acceptable to kill other people, that still wouldn’t make it okay, so I believe this theory is unproven and morality and our right and wrongs can’t come from this theory. Another theory that has brought to the attention of the origin of right and wrong is The ‘Feeling Theory’ and the ‘Boo-hoorah’ theory. The feeling theory is an example of how morality does come from us. We make things right or wrong by approving or disproving of them. If a person has certain feelings about another person’s actions, it is saying something about them. If they disprove of an action, it is considered morally wrong to that person. This theory is people making a claim about what they think; they are claiming whether the action is right or wrong. The ‘Boo-Hoorah Theory’ is another example of how morality comes from us but involves expressing what we think is right or wrong rather than making a claim about it. Something is neither true nor false and according to this theory there is no fact of the matter just an expression of what the person observing thinks. The feeling theory and the boo-hoorah theory are both wrong for everyone is different and raised differently with different beliefs (everyone has different feelings). So technically one person can truly believe that it is okay to kill while another says it’s not okay, these two people are contradicting one another which rules out both theories. Some children are brought up in an abusive home environment; does this mean that morally they think its okay to treat people differently based on how they were raised? All people are raised in a different environment, under different circumstances so if morality comes from us then morality would have to include a whole lot of different views. Another important theory is that morality and our right and wrongs come from the law. Morality and the law often correspond, our morals are what we consider right and wrong, While the law is what has been decided as right and wrong for us. Both murder and stealing are things we consider morally wrong and are also against the law. In the perfect world we all want the law to coincide with morality, but in reality most likely will never be like that. For example drugs are illegal and the law will not accept any sort of behaviour involving drugs, but in some cases people justify that is morally acceptable to deal drugs use it for personal use because of financial situations and pleasure. So they morally justify it in their own head for it to be okay. Even though morality can be guided by the law, helping us understand the differences between right and wrong, morality can’t come from the law, for there are a lot of things the law accept but us civilians see it as wrong. As we can see morality cannot come from the above theories, for they all leave the question of the origin of right and wrong UN answered. I believe that morality comes from us and that things are right and wrong anyway. I believe G. E Moores theory of the extra fact (the six sense) that can detect wrongness. I truly believe this for it is true that there is that something inside of us, guiding us and helping us know what is right and wrong. We don’t necessarily have to be taught about all the wrongs in life to just get that gut feeling that mugging an elderly person is just wrong, why do we feel that? Why don’t we do it? It is because it is something that is just there. Also everyone in the world is different, we all come from different backgrounds and everyone has been brought up differently, in different environments. So therefore we all have different feelings and beliefs, for someone can truly believe that stealing is acceptable, when another thinks it is wrong. Morality is based on how you feel and how you treat people, expecting the same in return; you wouldn’t want someone to hurt you, so why would you want to hurt them. There are no proven facts to where right and wrong comes from but it is something that is just there. It changes over time, and things that were once believed as right are now seen as wrong. So therefore we cannot place judgements for we don’t know what morality and right and wrong will be seen as in ten years time, it’s based you as a person.

Why Romeo’s Mood Change When He Realises Mercution Is Dying

Romeo’s mood changes when he realizes that Mercutio is dying as he suddenly becomes regretful ‘that an hour hath (Tybalt) been my kinsman’ and decides that ‘others must end’ over ‘this black day’s fate’, whereas at the beginning of the scene he is very calm and peaceful and tells Tybalt ‘I love thee’ and that the reason he does excuses the need to react aggressively toward the ‘greeting’ Tybalt gives him calling him ‘villain’ as his hate can have ‘no better term’.Romeo is made ‘effeminate’ by Juliet’s love and so his love ‘excuses the appertaining rage’ so he doesn’t harm the Capulet, ‘whose name I (he) tenders as dearly as’ his own as he is married to Juliet. When Mercutio and Tybalt are fighting he still continues to try to keep the peace, and tells Benvolio to help ‘beat down their weapons’ which links to the fig ht in Act 1 Scene 1 where Benvolio draws his sword to prevent the fighting, showing how they aren’t opposed to force to protect people they care about.When he realises Mercutio is dying he sheds his peace keeping attitude and actively participates in the fight as either him, Tybalt ‘or both’ must go with ‘Mercutio’s soul’ ‘to keep him company’. This also contrasts with the love expressed for Tybalt earlier, as he acts more masculine instead of being ‘effeminate’ as Juliet ‘hath soften’d valour’s steel’and fights to maintain his family’s honour and also avenge the death of his ‘very friend’, which shows two sides to Romeo; one being the courtly lover who is in love with Juliet and the other being an Italian hot-blooded male.

Case Analysis S1 Case Studies Essay - 943 Words

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